This is the second post in the Mid-Year discounting series. In the first post, I discussed in detail the workings and logic behind the mid-year convention and touched very briefly upon the terminal year calculations as well. It is strongly recommended to read the first post in conjunction with this one.
Now, unlike the free cash flow discounting during the explicit period, wherein the discounting period varies basis if mid-year convention is adopted or not along with taking note of any stubs therein, the Terminal Value discounting only gets affected by the stubs and not the adoption of mid-year convention.
Let me explain the above with an example:
Assume we are valuing the cash flows for Company A that has its FYE in December. For the sake of simplicity lets have explicit forecast period as 5 years. Also, lets assume WACC as 6.25%.
First lets assume simple discounting convention, where we assume cash flows are received at the end of each period. There are further be 2 cases assumed:
- Analysis is done on January 1: As can be seen below, while assuming no stub period and that cash flows are received at the end of year, we discount the cash flows by full number of years to bring it to the present.

2. Analysis is done on April 30: Here note that, we are still assuming that the cash flows are received at the end of the year but the only difference being that in the current period the company has already finished with one quarter. Thus, we need to adjust the cash flows as well as the discounting period to only account for the remaining 9 months left for the year end and not include the full year financials.

Year 1 discounting above takes the remaining number of days in the year and divided by total number of days (in this case 365). Years 2 onwards its simply the full year + 9 months of current year to bring the cash flows to the present date and so on.
This was simple case where cash flows were assumed at the year end. As noted in previous post, this assumption is not widely used and rather assuming that since cash flows are earned throughout the year, it is reasonable to assume average. That is the cash flows are received at the mid of each valuation period. I will not go into workings again, as it was all explained in the first post, but for comparisons with normal discounting, let me provide you with the screenshots of how the discounting FCF will look like.
- Analysis is done on January 1:

2. Analysis is done on April 30:

From the above analysis, it should be little clear how both mid-year convention as well as stub period will have impact on cash flows of explicit period.
Lets turn our attention to the Terminal Value.
Earlier, I mentioned that Terminal Value discounting only gets affected by the stubs and not the adoption of mid-year convention. Let us now try to understand, why this is the case with terminal value.
As you will already know, two of the most common ways of getting to the terminal value figure are – Multiple Value Method and Gordon Growth Method
- Multiple Value Method:
With this approach, we assume an exit multiple and use the corresponding metrics (EBIT / EBITDA) as of the last year of the explicit forecast period to get our terminal value. Now, there are few things to note here.
- Since we use the full year metric, say EBITDA of Year 5 in our example above, the terminal value so obtained is value at the end of the Year 5. To elaborate, it does not matter what convention of discounting for free cash flow we are assuming (normal vs mid-year), since the implied assumption is that the company is sold basis full year EBITDA, this is the value they will receive “at the end” of the explicit period / full year
- The assumption that EBITDA will be “assumed” to have received at the middle of year 5 in case of mid-year convention does not change the fact that it is a full year EBITDA basis which the company is sold at the end of the period
As such, it should be clear as to why the discounting convention does not play a role in the terminal value.
In our example above, if we are using the Multiple Value Method and assume that the company gets sold at 6.5x EBITDA Multiple and assuming EBITDA for Year 5 is say $235 million:
Terminal Value = 235 x 6.5 = $1,527.5 million
To get the PV of this Terminal Value, use the same discount factor as used in the final year if we are using the simple discounting for the other cash flows of the explicit period. So we will refer back to the “Simple Discounting” cases discussed above (since mid-year convention case is not relevant for terminal value) and use discount period as 5 for the January 1 case and 4.671 for the April 30 stub case. (Refer to the tables above).
However, in case the previous free cash flows of the explicit period are assumed to be discounted using the mid-year convention, then we need to add 0.5 to the final year discount period to account for the fact that it is a full year EBITDA usage. Hence, in the above example we will take (4.5+0.5)= 5 for the Jan 1 case and (4.171+0.5)=4.671 for Apr 30 case. Notice, this is exactly what the discount rate we are using in the “simple discounting” example above. This is exactly what we should be aware of!
2. Gordon Growth Method:
Under this approach, since we are not assuming an abrupt sale of business at the end of explicit forecast period – as is the case with multiple method – we can safely assume that no matter what the convention used (simple or mid-year), we will continue getting the free cash flows to perpetuity in the year end or mid as the case maybe.
Since the terminal value assumption matches with the assumption so taken for the explicit forecast period, we can use the same discounting period as used for the final year of forecast. So here, for simple discounting it will be 5 for Jan 1 case and 4.671 for the Apr 30 case. And for the mid-year assumption, it would be 4.5 for Jan 1 case and 4.171 for the Apr 30 case.
To get the Terminal Value using this approach, lets continue with above example where final year EBITDA was $235 million. If the WACC was 9.88%, growth rate was 2.5% and last year FCF of forecasted period was $109.98 million, the TV using the Gordon Growth Method is:
TV = (109.98 x (1 + 2.5%)) / (9.88% - 2.50%) = $1,527.5
It is not a surprise that the TV derived from both the methods is exactly the same. This happened as I used the implied growth rate from the Multiple method and applied it here. Though in real life scenarios you will be using either one of the methods, but it is good to understand the relation between the two.
- Formula for getting the implied growth rate from the multiple method is:
- ( Terminal Value * Discount Rate – Final Year FCF ) / (Terminal Value + Final Year FCF)
- Formula for getting the implied EBITDA multiple is pretty straight forward:
- Terminal Value from Gordon Method / Final Year EBITDA
- Please keep in mind that in case mid-year convention is used for the explicit period and you wish to compare the terminal value from both the methods (Multiple and Gordon Growth), you would need to multiply the TV from Gordon Growth by (1 + Discount Rate)^0.5, to bring it to the end of the explicit period. This is required since in Multiple Method it is always assumed that the TV is received at the “end” of the year. Note, such comparisons are quite rare in real life scenarios.















